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Post by Theodore Doxford on Aug 22, 2004 1:17:20 GMT -5
Firstly ,I apologise for the question because it's not a very deep one.
It's just when I have looked at parts of the bible I come to the conclusion that jesus/christianity was/were the first communist/s(the idea,not the Russian attempt of it).
If one of the more learned posters on here has actually read all the bible,can you tell me if it's true or not?
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Post by AuntieSocial on Aug 25, 2004 5:02:00 GMT -5
Yes. (Assuming, for the sake of this discussion that 1) Jesus existed and 2) the Bible gives an accurate dipiction of his extistance)
It isn't really surprising though. Many of the mystery schools/cults of the time were communal. Jesus and his followers would have been no different, especially concidering their travels. It is in the best interest of the group for all members to have equal access to food and beverage in order to maintain strength.
Also, the Hebrews were tribal (communal) prior to settling in 'the promised land'. Jesus was born into a Jewish family and was raised in Jewish tradition and customs. His teachings are apparently only for Jews.
There is also another factor at play here. Palestine was a region under occupation. If you look at occupied countries throughout history, it is common for those who are occupied to share what they have amongst themselves.
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Post by BaalShemRa on Aug 25, 2004 5:50:42 GMT -5
Check out Acts of the Apostles 2:44-45. Doesn't it sound a lot like "from each as he can contribute, to each as he needs" ( I'm paraphrasing here )?
I think you have it backwards though, it's Communism that's Judeo-Christian ( I'm not saying there are no other influences ).
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